L O A D I N G . . .
Authorized Exam Venue
Exam Schedule
Find our latest schedule, venue and fee for different Cambridge English Qualifications exams.
| Venue Code | Address | Tel |
| TCL |
Citylink Center - ShatinShop 623, 6/F, Citylink Plaza, 1 Shatin Station Circuit, Shatin (Near Sha Tin Station) |
2310-9088 |
| TTO |
Tseung Kwan O CenterShop 2005, Level 2, Tseung Kwan O Plaza, No. 1 Tong Tak St, Tseung Kwan O (Near Tseung Kwan O Station) |
2613-8821 |
| TWP |
Whampoa Garden Center - Hung HomShop B61, Basement 1, Site 11, Whampoa Garden, 6 Tak Hong Street, Hung Hom (Near Whampoa Station) |
2880-0098 |
Pre A1 Starters, A1 Movers and A2 Flyers:
| Venue Code | Date | Session | Registration Closing Date | Level | Exam Fee | Status |
| 2024 Nov | ||||||
| TCL | 2024-11-10 (Sun) |
A.M / P.M | 2024-10-02
(Wed) |
Starters | HK$1060.00 | Register |
| TCL | 2024-11-10 (Sun) |
A.M / P.M | 2024-10-02
(Wed) |
Movers | HK$1060.00 | Register |
| TCL | 2024-11-10 (Sun) |
A.M / P.M | 2024-10-02
(Wed) |
Flyers | HK$1060.00 | Register |
| Venue Code | Date | Session | Registration Closing Date | Level | Exam Fee | Status |
| 2024 Dec | ||||||
| TTO | 2024-12-08 (Sun) |
A.M / P.M | 2024-10-23
(Wed) |
Starters | HK$1060.00 | Register |
| TTO | 2024-12-08 (Sun) |
A.M / P.M | 2024-10-23
(Wed) |
Movers | HK$1060.00 | Register |
| TTO | 2024-12-08 (Sun) |
A.M / P.M | 2024-10-23
(Wed) |
Flyers | HK$1060.00 | Register |
*Monkey Tree reserves the right to change the exam venue due to unforeseen reasons without giving any explanations.
Candidates will be notified if there are any changes.
The morning session (AM) will start before 14.00
The afternoon session (PM) will start after 14.00.
When the exam session includes AM/PM, it means the exam will be conducted either in the morning or afternoon.
The final exam time will be confirmed 7-10 days before the exam, Candidates are not permitted to select or change the exam time for any reason.
You can pay by the following methods:
You must write the Candidate's English Full Name and the Exam Date in the field "Message to Beneficiary" when making the payment, or we may not be able to track your payment and can't release the Confirmation of Entry. For example, CHAN TAI MAN 16072024 (dd/mm/yyyy).
Bank-in
FPS ID: 113650964
The Bank's Name : HSBC
Name of Account : Monkey Tree International Group Limited
Account Number : 484-281910-838
*The transaction is considered successful only when the payment is shown and confirmed on our end. Otherwise, we will contact you by phone.
**Bank charges are borne by the applicant.
Why Choose Us
Register with us for the Cambridge English Exam
Once you are ready to take your exams, you may fill up the Cambridge English exam registration form. After completing the form, you will receive the confirmation email. If you do not receive the email, please email us at administration@monkeytree.com.hk for further assistance immediately.
Whether you’re a complete beginner or an advanced English learner, the Cambridge English exam is a popular choice for learners who want to be certified for their English language abilities. Fill up the Cambridge English exam registration form if you are ready to kickstart your journey today!
Exam
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Before registering for any exams, read the following regulations carefully and click the acceptance button at the end of the page.
1. Monkey Tree English Learning Center Limited reserves the right to change the exam venue without explanation for unforeseen reasons. Candidates will be notified if there are any changes.
2. Each exam requires a minimum number of candidates. The exam will not take place unless the requirement is reached. Candidates will be notified if there are any changes.
3. Please refer to Monkey Tree HK Bad Weather Arrangement for Cambridge English Examinations for bad weather arrangements.
4. You may cancel the registration, but the exam fee is not refundable under any circumstances. Please note that a cash refund is not applicable if you pay more than the net amount of the exam fee.
5. After successful registration, you will receive a confirmation email. If you do not receive the email, please email us at administration@monkeytree.com.hk for immediate assistance.
6. Monkey Tree English Learning Center Limited is not responsible for any consequences if candidates fail to submit the exam registration.
7. If you have any enquiries, please contact us at administration@monkeytree.com.hk.
*You cannot take an exam of the same level within 28 days.
Please read the following before you proceed:
The personal data provided in this form will be used for examination and other related purposes by Monkey Tree English Learning Center Limited. lt may be provided to other authorized organizations to process the information for the purpose of exam administration. information on candidates will be destroyed after selection and definitely within 6 months after the examination cycle.
You can pay by the following methods:
You must write the Candidate's English Full Name and the Exam Date in the field "Message to Beneficiary" when making the payment, or we may not be able to track your payment and can't release the Confirmation of Entry. For example, CHAN TAI MAN 16072024 (dd/mm/yyyy).
Bank-in
FPS ID: 113650964
The Bank's Name : HSBC
Name of Account : Monkey Tree International Group Limited
Account Number : 484-281910-838
*The transaction is considered successful only when the payment is shown and confirmed on our end. Otherwise, we will contact you by phone.
**Bank charges are borne by the applicant.
Please upload your payment proof with the date and time of transaction (screenshot/photo of the transaction or bank-in slip) (file size limit: 8 mb).
*To be declared by parent/guardian if the candidate is under 18 years of age.
By click the 'Submit' button, l declare that all information given in this registration form and the attached documents are, to the best of my knowledge, accurate and complete.l understand that all individuals who want to take Cambridge English exams are required to agree to all the terms and conditions set by Cambridge English and the exam centre.
Submission Successful!
An acknowledgement email will be send to you. Please check the junk/spam mail box if you do not receive it. The Confirmation of Entry (CoE) will be emailed to you 7-10 days before the exam. lf you do not receive the CoE, please contact us at administration@monkeytree.com.hk
Cambridge Exams
The Cambridge exams are a set of international certification exams in English. Each exam tests a certain level of language knowledge on 4 points: listening, reading, writing and speaking. Includes assignments in both British English and American English, as well as accents of different native speakers.
Monkey Tree offers expert tuition and study support for the following Cambridge Certificate Courses:
Level Guidelines for Cambridge Certificate Courses
Young Learners English (YLE)
Exam Format
| Paper | Content | Marks |
|
Listening (about 20 minutes) |
4 parts/ 20 questions |
a maximum of five shields |
|
Reading and Writing (20 minutes) |
5 parts/ 25 questions |
a maximum of five shields |
|
Speaking (3-5 minutes) |
4 parts/ |
a maximum of five shields |
Pre A1 Starters Listening test has four parts. Each part begins with one or two examples. Children will hear each recording twice.
Summary
| Time allowed: | About 20 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 4 |
| Number of questions: | 20 |
| Marks: | a maximum of five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | A big picture which shows people doing different things. Above and below the picture, there are some names. Children have to listen carefully to a conversation between an adult and a child and draw a line from each name to the correct person on the big picture. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for names and descriptions. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | A short conversation between a child and an adult, and some questions. Children listen to the recording and write the correct answer (a name or a number) after each question. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for numbers and spelling. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | Five short conversations between different pairs of people. For each conversation there is a question and three pictures. Children need to listen carefully to each conversation and choose the right answer (A, B or C). |
| What should children practise? | Listening for specific information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | A big picture which has seven examples of the same object (for example, seven balls or seven books). Children need to listen carefully to a conversation between an adult and a child, and colour each object using the colour they say in the conversation. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for words, colours and prepositions. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Pre A1 Starters Reading and Writing test has five parts. Each part begins with one or two examples. For all parts of the Reading and Writing test, children must spell their answers correctly.
Summary
| Time allowed: | About 20 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 5 |
| Number of questions: | 25 |
| Marks: | a maximum of five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | Five pictures of objects. Under each picture there is a sentence which begins ‘This is a …’ or ‘These are …’. If the sentence is correct, children should put a tick next to the picture. If the sentence is not true, they should put a cross. |
| What should children practise? | Reading short sentences and recognising words. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | A big picture and some sentences about it. If the sentence is correct, children should write ‘yes’; if the sentence is not true, they should write ‘no’. |
| What should children practise? | Reading sentences about a picture. Writing one-word answers. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | Five pictures of objects. Children have to find the right word in English for the object. After each picture there are some dashes (- - -) to show how many letters are in the word, and some jumbled letters. Children have to put the jumbled letters in the right order to make the word. |
| What should children practise? | Spelling single words. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | A semi-factual text which has some missing words (gaps). Below the text there is a box with some pictures and words. Children have to choose the right word from the box and copy it into each gap. |
| What should children practise? | Reading a text and writing missing words (nouns). |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 5
| What's in Part 5? | Three pictures which tell a story. Each picture has one or two questions. Children have to look at the pictures and write the answer to each question. They only have to write one word for each answer. |
| What should children practise? | Reading questions about a picture story. Writing one-word answers. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Pre A1 Starters Speaking test has four parts. Children take the test alone with the examiner, but someone they know who speaks their language (like their teacher) will introduce them to the examiner and explain what to do in their own language.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 3 - 5 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 4 |
| Marks: | a maximum five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | The examiner will greet the child and ask their name. Then the examiner asks them to point to some things in a big picture. The examiner shows some small pictures of objects. The examiner names three objects and asks the child to point to them. The examiner then asks them to put each object card somewhere on the big picture from Part 1 (for example, ‘Put the shell under the tree’). |
| What should children practise? | Understanding and following spoken instructions. |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | he examiner asks the child some questions about the big picture from Part 1 (for example, ‘What is this?’, ‘What colour is it?’). The child will also be asked by the examiner to ‘Tell me about …’ one of the objects in the big picture. |
| What should children practise? | Understanding and following spoken instructions. |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | The examiner asks the child some questions about the small pictures of objects from Part 2 (for example, ‘What is this?’, ‘Have you got a…?’). |
| What should children practise? | Understanding and following spoken instructions. |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | The examiner asks the child some questions about themselves (for example, age, family, friends). |
| What should children practise? | Understanding and following spoken instructions. |
| Paper | Content | Marks |
|
Listening (about 25 minutes) |
5 parts/ 25 questions |
a maximum of five shields |
|
Reading andWriting (30 minutes) |
6 parts/ 35 questions |
a maximum of five shields |
|
Speaking (5-7 minutes) |
4 parts/ | a maximum of five shields |
The A1 Movers Listening test has five parts. Each part begins with one or two examples. Children will hear each recording twice.
Summary
| Time allowed: | About 25 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 5 |
| Number of questions: | 25 |
| Marks: | a maximum of five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | A big picture which shows people doing different things. Above and below the picture, there are some names. Children have to listen carefully to a conversation between an adult and a child and draw a line from each name to the correct person on the big picture. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for names and descriptions. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | A short conversation between two people. There is a form or a page of a notebook with some missing words (gaps). Children have to listen to the recording and write a missing word or number in each gap. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for names, spellings and other information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | Two sets of pictures. On the left, there are some pictures of people and their names, or other named places or objects. On the right, there is a set of pictures with letters but no words. Children have to listen to a conversation between two people and match each of the pictures on the right to one of the named pictures on the left. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for words, names and detailed information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | Five short conversations. There is a question and three pictures for each conversation. Children have to decide which picture shows the right answer to the question and put a tick in the box under it. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for specific information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 5
| What's in Part 5? | A big picture. Children have to listen carefully to a conversation between an adult and a child. The adult asks the child to colour different objects in the picture and to write a simple word. Children have to follow the instructions. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for words, colours and specific information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
The A1 Movers Reading and Writing test has six parts. Each part begins with one or two examples. For all parts of the Reading and Writing test, children must spell their answers correctly.
Summary
| Time allowed: | About 30 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 6 |
| Number of questions: | 35 |
| Marks: | a maximum of five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | On the left, there are eight pictures of things with the English word under them. On the right, there are five definitions (sentences that describe or explain five of the eight things on the left). Children need to choose which picture matches each definition and copy the correct word under it. |
| What should children practise? | Reading short sentences and recognising words. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | A short conversation between two people. Children have to decide what the second speaker says each time (A, B or C). |
| What should children practise? | Reading a conversation. Choosing the correct responses. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | A text with some missing words (gaps) in it. Next to the text there are some small pictures and words. Children have to decide which word goes in each gap and copy it. For the last question, they have to choose the best title for the text from a choice of three possible titles. |
| What should children practise? | Reading for specific information and gist (the main idea of a text). Copying words. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | A text with some missing words (gaps). Next to the line where each word is missing, there is a choice of three possible answers. Children have to decide which answer is correct and copy the word into the gap. |
| What should children practise? | Reading and understanding a factual text. Simple grammar. Copying words. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 5
| What's in Part 5? | A story in three parts. Each part of the story has a picture. After each part of the story, children have to complete sentences about the story using one, two or three words. |
| What should children practise? | Reading a story. Completing sentences. |
| How many questions are there? | 7 |
Part 6
| What's in Part 6? | A picture with sentence prompts. Children have to complete sentences, respond to questions and write in full sentences about the picture. |
| What should children practise? | Completing sentences, responding to questions and writing sentences about a picture. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
The A1 Movers Speaking test has four parts. Children take the test alone with the examiner, but someone they know who speaks their language (like their teacher) will introduce them to the examiner and explain what to do in their own language.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 5 - 7 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 4 |
| Marks: | a maximum five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | The examiner will greet the child and ask their name and age. Then they look at two pictures. The pictures are similar but they have some differences. The examiner asks the child to describe four differences in the pictures. |
| What should children practise? | Describing differences between pictures. Talking about colour, size, number, position, how people/things look, what people are doing, etc. |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | The examiner shows four pictures which tell a story and tells the child about the first picture. The child has to continue the story and describe the other three pictures. The title of the story and the name(s) of the main character(s) are provided. |
| What should children practise? | Understanding the beginning of a story and then continuing it. Describing pictures. |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | The examiner shows the child four sets of four pictures. In each set of pictures, one picture is different from the others. The child has to say which picture is different and explain why. |
| What should children practise? | Suggesting a picture which is different and explaining why. |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | The examiner asks the child some questions about him/herself (for example, school, weekends, friends and hobbies). |
| What should children practise? | Understanding and responding to personal questions. |
| Paper | Content | Marks |
|
Listening (about 25 minutes) |
5 parts/ 25 questions |
a maximum of five shields |
|
Reading and Writing (40 minutes) |
7 parts/ 44 questions |
a maximum of five shields |
|
Speaking (7-9 minutes) |
4 parts/ | a maximum of five shields |
A2 Flyers Listening test has five parts. Each part begins with one or two examples. Children will hear each recording twice.
Summary
| Time allowed: | About 25 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 5 |
| Number of questions: | 25 |
| Marks: | a maximum of five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | A big picture which shows people doing different things. Above and below the picture, there are some names. Children have to listen carefully to a conversation between an adult and a child and draw a line from each name to the correct person on the big picture. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for names and descriptions. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | A short conversation between two people. There is a form or a page of a notebook with some missing words (gaps). Children have to listen to the recording and write a missing word or number in each gap. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for names, spellings and other information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | Two sets of pictures. On the left, there are some pictures of people and their names, or other named places or objects. On the right, there is a set of pictures with letters but no words. Children have to listen to a conversation between two people and match each of the pictures on the right to one of the named pictures on the left. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for words, names and detailed information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | Five short conversations. There is a question and three pictures for each conversation. Children have to decide which picture shows the right answer to the question and put a tick in the box under it. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for specific information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 5
| What's in Part 5? | A big picture. Children have to listen carefully to a conversation between an adult and a child and colour different objects for three of the questions and write a single word for two of the questions in the picture. |
| What should children practise? | Listening for words, colours and specific information. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
A2 Flyers Reading and Writing test has seven parts. Each part begins with one or two examples. For all parts of the Reading and Writing test, children must spell their answers correctly.
Summary
| Time allowed: | About 40 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 7 |
| Number of questions: | 44 |
| Marks: | a maximum of five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | Fifteen words and ten definitions (sentences that describe or explain ten of the fifteen words). Children have to write the correct word next to each definition. |
| What should children practise? | Reading definitions and matching to words. Copying words. |
| How many questions are there? | 10 |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | A short conversation between two people. Everything that the first speaker says is printed on the question paper, with gaps for the second speaker's answers. For each gap, children have to choose the correct answer from a list (A–H). |
| What should children practise? | Reading and completing a continuous dialogue. Writing letters. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | A text with some missing words (gaps) in it (a noun, adjective or verb). Next to the text there is a box with words in it. Children have to choose the correct word from the box for each gap and copy it. For the last question, children have to choose the best title for the text from a choice of three possible titles. |
| What should children practise? | Reading for specific information and gist. Copying words. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | A text with some missing words (gaps). Next to the line where each word is missing, there is a choice of three possible answers. Children have to decide which answer is correct and copy the word into the gap. |
| What should children practise? | Reading and understanding a factual text. Copying words. Simple grammar. |
| How many questions are there? | 10 |
Part 5
| What's in Part 5? | A complete story, and seven sentences about the story. Each sentence has a gap which children have to complete using one, two, three or four words. |
| What should children practise? | Reading a story. Completing sentences. |
| How many questions are there? | 7 |
Part 6
| What's in Part 6? | A text from a letter or diary with five gaps. Children have to write the missing word in each of the five gaps. There is no list of words to choose from. |
| What should children practise? | Reading and understanding a short text. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
Part 7
| What's in Part 7? | Children write a story based on three pictures. |
| What should children practise? | Writing short stories. |
| How many questions are there? | 1 |
A2 Flyers Speaking test has four parts. Children take the test alone with the examiner, but someone they know who speaks their language (like their teacher) will introduce them to the examiner and explain what to do in their own language.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 7 - 9 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 4 |
| Marks: | a maximum five shields |
Part 1
| What's in Part 1? | The examiner will greet the child and ask their name, family name and age. Then they look at two pictures. The pictures are similar but they have some differences. The examiner asks the child to describe four differences in the pictures. |
| What should children practise? | Understanding and talking about differences between pictures. Talking about colour, size, number, position, how people/things look, what people are doing, etc. |
Part 2
| What's in Part 2? | The child and the examiner each have two similar pictures (for example, pictures of two different classrooms). The examiner has information about one picture, and the child has information about the other picture. First, the examiner asks the child questions about one picture, and then the child asks similar questions about the other picture. |
| What should children practise? | Answering questions with short answers. Asking questions to get information. |
Part 3
| What's in Part 3? | The examiner shows four pictures which tell a story and tells the child about the first picture. The child has to continue the story and describe the other three pictures. The title of the story and the name(s) of the main character(s) are provided. |
| What should children practise? | Understanding the beginning of a story and then continuing it. Describing pictures. |
Part 4
| What's in Part 4? | The examiner asks the child some questions about him/herself (for example, school, hobbies, birthday, family or holidays). |
| What should children practise? | Understanding and responding to personal questions. |
Word List and Word List Picture Book
Sample Test
Pre A1Starters, A1 Movers and A2 Flyers 2018 Sample papers –Vol 1
Pre A1Starters, A1 Movers and A2 Flyers 2018 Sample papers –Vol 2
Key English Test (KET)
Exam Format
| Paper | Content | Marks (% of total) |
Purpose |
|
Reading and Writing (1 hour) |
7 parts/ 32 questions |
50% | Shows you can understand simple written information such as signs, brochures, newspapers and magazines. |
|
Listening (30 minutes, including 6 minutes' transfer time) |
5 parts/ 25 questions |
25% | Requires you to be able to understand announcements and other spoken material when people speak reasonably slowly. |
|
Speaking (8-10 minutes per pair of candidates;13-15 minutes per group of three) |
2 parts/ | 25% | Shows you can take part in a conversation by answering and asking simple questions. Your Speaking test will be conducted face to face with one or two other candidates and two examiners. One of the examiners (who could be online, examining remotely) talks to you and the other examiner listens. This makes your test more realistic and more reliable. Examiners may use their mobile phones for entering marks using an app. |
The A2 Key Reading and Writing paper has seven parts and different types of texts and questions. Parts 1-5 are about reading and Parts 6-7 are mainly about writing.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 1 hour |
| Number of parts: | 7 |
| Number of questions: | 32 |
| Marks(% of total): | 50% |
Part 1 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read six short real-world texts for the main message. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 2 (Multiple matching)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read seven questions and three short texts on the same topic, then match the questions to the texts. |
| How many questions are there? | 7 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 3 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read one long text for detailed understanding and main ideas. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 4 (Multiple-choice cloze)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read a factual text and choose the correct vocabulary items to complete the gaps. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 5 (Open cloze)
| What do candidates have to do? | Complete gaps in an email (and sometimes the reply too) using one word. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 6 (Guided writing)
| What do candidates have to do? | Write a short email or note of 25 words or more. |
| How many questions are there? | 1 |
| How many marks are there? | The question has a maximum of 15 marks available |
Part 7 (Picture story)
| What do candidates have to do? | Write a short story of 35 words or more based on three picture prompts. |
| How many questions are there? | 1 |
| How many marks are there? | The question has a maximum of 15 marks available |
The A2 Key Listening paper has five parts, For each part you have to listen to a recorded text or texts and answer some questions. You hear each recording twice.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 30 minutes, including 6 minutes' transfer time |
| Number of parts: | 5 |
| Number of questions: | 25 |
| Marks(% of total): | 25% |
Part 1 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Identify key information in five short dialogues and choose the correct visual. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 2 (Gap fill)
| What do candidates have to do? | Listen to a monologue and complete gaps in a page of notes. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 3 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Listen to a dialogue for key information and answer five 3-option questions. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 4 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Identify the main idea, message, gist or topic in five short monologues or dialogues and answer five 3-option questions. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 5 (Matching)
| What do candidates have to do? | Listen to a dialogue for key information and match five items. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
The A2 Key Speaking test has two parts and you take it with another candidate. There are two examiners. One examiner talks to you and the other examiner listens. Both examiners give marks for your performance.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 8-10 minutes per pair of candidates: 13-15 minutes per group of three |
| Number of parts: | 2 |
| Marks (% of total): | 25% |
Part 1 (Interview)
| What do candidates have to do? | Respond to questions, giving factual or personal information. |
| How long do candidates have to speak? | 3-4 minutes |
Part 2 (Discussion)
| What do candidates have to do? | Candidates discuss likes and dislikes, and give reasons. |
| How long do candidates have to speak? | 5-6 minutes |
Vocabulary List
Sample Test
Preliminary English Test (PET)
Exam Format
| Paper | Content | Marks (% of total) |
Purpose |
|
Reading (45 minutes) |
6 parts/ 32 questions |
25% | Shows you can read and understand the main points from signs, newspapers and magazines. |
|
Writing (45 minutes) |
2 parts/ 2 questions |
25% | Shows you can use vocabulary and structure correctly. |
|
Listening (30 minutes, including 6 minutes' transfer time) |
4 parts/ 25 questions |
25% | You have to be able to follow and understand a range of spoken materials including announcements and discussions about everyday life. |
|
Speaking (10-12 minutes per pair of candidates;15-17 minutes per group of three) |
4 parts/ | 25% | Shows how good your spoken English is as you take part in conversation by asking/answering questions and talking, for example, about your likes and dislikes. Your Speaking test will be face to face with one or two other candidates and two examiners. One of the examiners (who could be online, examining remotely) talks to you and the other examiner listens. This makes your test more realistic and more reliable. Examiners may use their mobile phones for entering marks using an app. |
The B1 Preliminary Reading paper has six parts. There are different types of texts and questions.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 45 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 6 |
| Number of questions: | 32 |
| Marks(% of total): | 25% |
Part 1 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read five real-world notices, messages and other short texts for the main message. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 2 (Matching)
| What do candidates have to do? | Match five descriptions of people to eight short texts on a particular topic,showing detailed comprehension. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 3 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read a longer text for detailed comprehension, gist, inference and global meaning,as well as writer's attitude and opinion. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 4 (Gapped text)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read a longer text from which five sentences have been removed. Show understanding of how a coherent and well-structured text is formed. |
| How many questions are there? | 5 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 5 (Multiple choice cloze)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read a shorter text and choose the correct vocabulary items to complete gaps. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 6 (Open cloze)
| What do candidates have to do? | Read a shorter text and complete six gaps using one word for each gap. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
The B1 Preliminary paper has two parts, You have to show that you can write different types of text in English.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 45 minutes |
| Number of parts: | 2 |
| Number of questions: | 2 |
| Marks(% of total): | 25% |
Part 1 (Writing an email)
| What do candidates have to do? | Write about 100 words, answering the email and notes provided. |
| How many questions are there? | 1 |
| How many marks are there? | The question has a maximum of 20 marks available |
Part 2 (Choice between an article or a story)
| What do candidates have to do? | Write about 100 words, answering the question of their choosing |
| How many questions are there? | Choose one question from a choice of two. |
| How many marks are there? | The question has a maximum of 20 marks available |
The B1 Preliminary Listening paper has four parts, For each part, you have to listen to a recorded text or texts and answer some questions. You hear each recording twice.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 30 minutes, including 6 minutes' transfer time |
| Number of parts: | 4 |
| Number of questions: | 25 |
| Marks (% of total): | 25% |
Part 1 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Identify key information in seven short monologues or dialogues and choose the correct visual. |
| How many questions are there? | 7 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 2 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Listen to six short dialogues and understand the gist of each. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 3 (Gap fill)
| What do candidates have to do? | Listen to a monologue and complete six gaps. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
Part 4 (Multiple choice)
| What do candidates have to do? | Listen to an interview for a detailed understanding of meaning and to identify attitudes and opinions. |
| How many questions are there? | 6 |
| How many marks are there? | One mark for each correct answer |
The B1 Preliminary Speaking test has four parts and you take it together with another candidate. There are two examiners. One of the examiners talks to you and the other examiner listens.
Summary
| Time allowed: | 10-12 minutes per pair of candidates; 15-17 minutes per group of three |
| Number of parts: | 4 |
| Marks (% of total): | 25% |
Part 1 (Interview)
| What do candidates have to do? | Respond to questions, giving factual or personal information. |
| How long do candidates have to speak? | 2 minutes |
Part 2 (Extended turn)
| What do candidates have to do? | Describe one colour photograph, talking for about 1 minute. |
| How long do candidates have to speak? | 3 minutes |
Part 3 (Discussion)
| What do candidates have to do? | Make and respond to suggestions, discuss alternatives and negotiate agreement |
| How long do candidates have to speak? | 4 minutes |
Part 4 (General conversation)
| What do candidates have to do? | Discuss likes, dislikes, experiences, opinions, habits, etc. |
| How long do candidates have to speak? | 3 minutes |
Vocabulary List
Sample Test
